Dear Sir,
I am requesting some clarity towards the understanding of ‘occupied territories’. It seems an ambiguous term and I am particularly interested in its definitive parameters. Does the term ‘occupied’ have a chronological boundary? Does it cease to be in existence after a duration of 10 years, 100 years or perhaps, a millennium?
In order to establish a consistent understanding of territories mentioned as ‘occupied’, one must be aware of the timeline – precisely which territory was under occupation, when, why and by whom?
This understanding is of considerable significance, as it would help to ascertain if the term ‘occupied territory’ per se, can be applicable or sometimes non-applicable to territories such as Northern Ireland, Gibraltar, and the Falkland Islands.
Yours sincerely,
Philip Hannigan of Bray, Co Wicklow.